| Summary: | No abstract available. Article truncated at 150 words. History of Present Illness: A 24-year-old woman was diagnosed with pneumonia while on her honeymoon in Europe. She received an unknown treatment as an outpatient. When she returned a repeat chest x-ray showed persistent lung infiltrates. At that time she was asymptomatic. She was referred to pulmonary for further evaluation. Past Medical History, Family History, Social History: idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura at age 8; recurrent “bronchitis” since childhood; lifelong non-smoker, occasional ETOH, no illicit drugs; no significant family history, other than hypertension in her father. Physical Examination; She had bibasilar fine crackles (fine) otherwise her physical examination was unremarkable. Radiography: A chest x-ray was performed and interpreted as showing bilateral basilar interstitial infiltrates (Figure 1). To better define the abnormalities on chest x-ray a thoracic CT scan was performed (Figure 2). Based on the CT scan, which of the following diagnosis is least likely? 1. Hematogenous metastasis; 2. Hypersensitivity pneumonitis; 3...
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